On Sep 6, 7:02 pm, Andrei Alexandrescu < XXXX@XXXXX.COM >
I don't get it; how does using an rvalue magically make the infinite-
regression problem disappear? Is there some sort of copy-elision
going on (and how would that help if so)?
In (my) other words, how did "another" get loaded up? And could you
show a working rvalue example.
[ See http://www.yqcomputer.com/
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